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- April 26, 2012 at 6:35 am#295126
kerwinParticipantQuote (Ed J @ April 26 2012,09:26) Quote (kerwin @ April 26 2012,14:17) Charity, There is evidence that the line of Solomon lost their hold on the throne; just as the line of Saul did previously. There is no evidence one way or another as regards the line of Nathan. A descendant of the line of Nathan still keeps God’s promise to David and Yahweh puts on the throne whoever he chooses.
Hi Kerwin,
Look again at Luke 3:23-31, verse 31 specifically.
Do you know what “as was supposed” means?God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
Ed,The line of decent in Luke is Mary's line as she is clearly the witness. Matthew gives the line of Joseph.
April 26, 2012 at 6:37 am#295127
kerwinParticipantQuote (Ed J @ April 26 2012,09:32) Hi Kerwin, The line through Solomon was cursed. (2Samuel 12:10-11 and Rev.22:16)
Ed;That is true but Scripture continued to call it the royal line.
April 26, 2012 at 6:46 am#295129jammin
ParticipantQuote (Ed J @ April 26 2012,17:23) Quote (jammin @ April 26 2012,17:00) Quote (Ed J @ April 26 2012,16:46) Quote (jammin @ April 26 2012,16:19) based on the context what did john said? did he say that the word is the
1. Holy spirit
2. son of GODpls choose your answer
Hi Jammin,Are you trying to change Scripture?
John said: “The Word” was God.
And you agreed that the “HolySpirit” was God. …so what's the problem?God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
the problem is your understanding to the context. LOLyou dont know how to read the bible. you are just jumping to the other verses to support your man made doctrine,. that is not the right way to read the bible. there is a context boy LOL
now answer my question.
based on the context, who is the WORD that john said.1. holy spirit
2. son of GODpls answer 1 or 2
Hi Jammin,Does the context change the meaning of: “The Word” was God?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
the Word was GOD correct.
but john did not say that the word is the holy spirit.read the context boy. even the greek bible did not say that the Word is the HS.
make your own version boy LOL
April 26, 2012 at 6:47 am#295130jammin
Participant14και ο λογος σαρξ εγενετο και εσκηνωσεν εν ημιν και εθεασαμεθα την δοξαν αυτου δοξαν ως μονογενους παρα πατρος πληρης χαριτος και αληθειας
15ιωαννης μαρτυρει περι αυτου και κεκραγεν λεγων ουτος ην ον ειπον ο οπισω μου ερχομενος εμπροσθεν μου γεγονεν οτι πρωτος μου ην
16και εκ του πληρωματος αυτου ημεις παντες ελαβομεν και χαριν αντι χαριτος
17οτι ο νομος δια μωσεως εδοθη η χαρις και η αληθεια δια ιησου χριστου εγενετο
18θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε ο μονογενης υιος ο ων εις τον κολπον του πατρος εκεινος εξηγησατο
what did john said?
did he say that the word is the
1. Holy spirit
2. son of GODpls choose your answer
April 26, 2012 at 8:11 am#295135NickHassan
ParticipantQuote (kerwin @ April 26 2012,17:24) Quote (Nick Hassan @ April 26 2012,09:20) Hi KW,
The human spirit is not in God nor is it recreated.
The human spirit of Jesus left him at calvary.You mean the soul?
Nick,All I know is Jesus states I am in the Father and the Father is in me. I also know God is in him through the Spirit of God so it seems reasonable that Jesus is in God through his spirit. It is the unity of the spirit.
Jesus commended(entrusted) his spirit into God's hands.
Luke 23:46
King James Version (KJV)46And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost.
I see nowhere that it is written it was not returned to him.
Hi KW,
I agree.It is not written that his own human spirit returned to him
The single grain had fallen to the ground and died.The new creation lives by the Spirit of God.
April 26, 2012 at 8:41 am#295139
Ed JParticipantQuote (kerwin @ April 26 2012,17:35) Quote (Ed J @ April 26 2012,09:26) Quote (kerwin @ April 26 2012,14:17) Charity, There is evidence that the line of Solomon lost their hold on the throne; just as the line of Saul did previously. There is no evidence one way or another as regards the line of Nathan. A descendant of the line of Nathan still keeps God’s promise to David and Yahweh puts on the throne whoever he chooses.
Hi Kerwin,
Look again at Luke 3:23-31, verse 31 specifically.
Do you know what “as was supposed” means?God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
Ed,The line of decent in Luke is Mary's line as she is clearly the witness. Matthew gives the line of Joseph.
Hi Kerwin, You are CORRECT!Matt.22:42-45, Mark 12:35-37, Luke 20:41-44, and Matt.1:20
all discount Joesph from being the father of Jesus.Matt.1:18-20 and Luke 1:35 point directly to
Jesus being the progeny of God's “HolySpirit”! (Son of God)
(Note: [Son=48] and “Son of God” is used exactly 48 times in the “AKJV Bible!)And Matt. 1:18, Luke 1:35 and Acts 1:14 point
directly to Jesus being the progeny of Mary! (Son of Man)
([Son of Man=97] “Son of Man” Theomatic hit of `97×2 for the times it is used)God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgApril 26, 2012 at 8:48 am#295141jammin
Participant14και ο λογος σαρξ εγενετο και εσκηνωσεν εν ημιν και εθεασαμεθα την δοξαν αυτου δοξαν ως μονογενους παρα πατρος πληρης χαριτος και αληθειας
15ιωαννης μαρτυρει περι αυτου και κεκραγεν λεγων ουτος ην ον ειπον ο οπισω μου ερχομενος εμπροσθεν μου γεγονεν οτι πρωτος μου ην
16και εκ του πληρωματος αυτου ημεις παντες ελαβομεν και χαριν αντι χαριτος
17οτι ο νομος δια μωσεως εδοθη η χαρις και η αληθεια δια ιησου χριστου εγενετο
18θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε ο μονογενης υιος ο ων εις τον κολπον του πατρος εκεινος εξηγησατο
what did john said?
did he say that the word is the
1. Holy spirit
2. son of GODpls choose your answer
April 26, 2012 at 8:54 am#295142
Ed JParticipantQuote (kerwin @ April 26 2012,17:37) Quote (Ed J @ April 26 2012,09:32) Hi Kerwin, The line through Solomon was cursed. (2Samuel 12:10-11 and Rev.22:16)
Ed;That is true but Scripture continued to call it the royal line.
Hi Kerwin,The Crown was first taken away from David, starting in 1Kings 11:31-35, with
the removal of 10 tribes, and finishing in 1Kings 12:20. (study well my friend!)Your brother
in Christ, Jesus.
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
holycitybiblecode.orgApril 26, 2012 at 9:01 am#295144charity
ParticipantQuote (jammin @ April 26 2012,19:48) 14και ο λογος σαρξ εγενετο και εσκηνωσεν εν ημιν και εθεασαμεθα την δοξαν αυτου δοξαν ως μονογενους παρα πατρος πληρης χαριτος και αληθειας 15ιωαννης μαρτυρει περι αυτου και κεκραγεν λεγων ουτος ην ον ειπον ο οπισω μου ερχομενος εμπροσθεν μου γεγονεν οτι πρωτος μου ην
16και εκ του πληρωματος αυτου ημεις παντες ελαβομεν και χαριν αντι χαριτος
17οτι ο νομος δια μωσεως εδοθη η χαρις και η αληθεια δια ιησου χριστου εγενετο
18θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε ο μονογενης υιος ο ων εις τον κολπον του πατρος εκεινος εξηγησατο
what did john said?
did he say that the word is the
1. Holy spirit
2. son of GODpls choose your answer
Im sure you care that john was saying all new things…mixing old things into a very odd new result…after all the murder of Jesus changed the order of what was hope for……an is clearly the strength behind the catholic church's victorious new on going reign…Na never mind …..Cant believe the Gospel of John never gets directly questioned for motivation…an made accountable towards dictator positions ….
everything right up to…the priest very serious about casting demons out of people…an devils entering bodies…people having satan as their father….so go ahead an abuse them with your mouth….stupidness, unless demons can repent an become normal…no they forgot to tell us if that was possible…the word is nothing without reason to carry on in its own striff…
An Jesus can still be a reincarnated old soul, in new vessle…
theres more ways than John's way to skin a cat…an more revealing towards the true nature of his murdersApril 26, 2012 at 8:51 pm#295172
kerwinParticipantQuote (Ed J @ April 26 2012,14:54) Quote (kerwin @ April 26 2012,17:37) Quote (Ed J @ April 26 2012,09:32) Hi Kerwin, The line through Solomon was cursed. (2Samuel 12:10-11 and Rev.22:16)
Ed;That is true but Scripture continued to call it the royal line.
Hi Kerwin,The Crown was first taken away from David, starting in 1Kings 11:31-35, with
the removal of 10 tribes, and finishing in 1Kings 12:20. (study well my friend!)Your brother
in Christ, Jesus.
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
holycitybiblecode.org
Ed,The crown was taken from Salomon's line but they retained two tribes for the sake of David. The line of kings is mentioned on the return from Babylonian captivity.
Jesus is the natural decedent of David through his son Nathan and the adopted son of David through his son Solomon.
April 26, 2012 at 9:00 pm#295173
kerwinParticipantNick,
It is written:
John 12
New King James Version (NKJV)23 But Jesus answered them, saying, “The hour has come that the Son of Man should be glorified. 24 Most assuredly, I say to you, unless a grain of wheat falls into the ground and dies, it remains alone; but if it dies, it produces much grain. 25 He who loves his life will lose it, and he who hates his life in this world will keep it for eternal life. 26 If anyone serves Me, let him follow Me; and where I am, there My servant will be also. If anyone serves Me, him My Father will honor.
It is true that the Spirit of God only came as Councilor because Jesus died and was given authority to send it.
April 26, 2012 at 9:15 pm#295178Frank4YAHWEH
ParticipantQuote (terraricca @ April 26 2012,14:42) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ April 26 2012,20:28) Quote (terraricca @ April 26 2012,13:06) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ April 26 2012,19:43) Quote (terraria @ April 26 2012,12:23) F Quote You certainly do have a perverted belief concerning Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word!
what is it
? I would like to know , scriptures not your OPINION:laugh:
Pier,Oh, I left you out! You are of the same opinion as Mike that Father Yahweh's word is an actual being, right?

Fmy name is ;Peter ,Pierre, Sephase ,Bedros,Petrus,Pietro,
and so on in different languages ,this name means ROCK
NOW AM I A ROCK
OR A HUMAN BEING CALLED “ROCK”
Pieear,I have always been told that the name Peter means 'small stone' or 'small pebble”. Surely you are not deceived into believing the doctrine “On Peter the Church is built.”, are you?
FI believe what scriptures say ,but did Christ meant Peter himself
or allusion to his name and faith, what you think 
PWhat Yahshua was giving reference to as the 'rock' is what Kepha had said in reply to Yahshua's asking the question “Whom do men say that I the son of man am?” Kepha's reply was “You are the Messiah the son of the living Yahweh.” Note that Yahshua said in response to Kepha's answer “Blessed are you Simeon Bar Yahnah, for flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but it is my Father who has revealed this to you. The “rock” (or “solid foundation”) that Yahshua said that he would build his assembly (body) of believers was that he was the Messiah the son of the living Yahweh. We must believe this truth as was revealed to Kepha by Father Yahweh.
Note also the other responses that Yahshua received from the question that he asked his students (disciples) concerning who men said that he is. In none of their responses will you find them saying 'Some say that you are “God” or “a god”.' If anyone at that time believed that Yahshua was “God” or “a god”, they surely would have mentioned something so outlandish as this, but they did not. I can only conclude from by observance of what is recorded in the so-called “New Testament” that no one at that time believed that Yahshua was “God” or “a god” and that we are to believe that Yahshua is the Messiah the son of the living Yahweh and that it was He Who had raised him from death and the grave.
April 26, 2012 at 9:40 pm#295180
terrariccaParticipantQuote (Frank4YAHWEH @ April 27 2012,15:15) Quote (terraricca @ April 26 2012,14:42) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ April 26 2012,20:28) Quote (terraricca @ April 26 2012,13:06) Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ April 26 2012,19:43) Quote (terraria @ April 26 2012,12:23) F Quote You certainly do have a perverted belief concerning Father Yahweh's inspired prophetic word!
what is it
? I would like to know , scriptures not your OPINION:laugh:
Pier,Oh, I left you out! You are of the same opinion as Mike that Father Yahweh's word is an actual being, right?

Fmy name is ;Peter ,Pierre, Sephase ,Bedros,Petrus,Pietro,
and so on in different languages ,this name means ROCK
NOW AM I A ROCK
OR A HUMAN BEING CALLED “ROCK”
Pieear,I have always been told that the name Peter means 'small stone' or 'small pebble”. Surely you are not deceived into believing the doctrine “On Peter the Church is built.”, are you?
FI believe what scriptures say ,but did Christ meant Peter himself
or allusion to his name and faith, what you think 
PWhat Yahshua was giving reference to as the 'rock' is what Kepha had said in reply to Yahshua's asking the question “Whom do men say that I the son of man am?” Kepha's reply was “You are the Messiah the son of the living Yahweh.” Note that Yahshua said in response to Kepha's answer “Blessed are you Simeon Bar Yahnah, for flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but it is my Father who has revealed this to you. The “rock” (or “solid foundation”) that Yahshua said that he would build his assembly (body) of believers was that he was the Messiah the son of the living Yahweh. We must believe this truth as was revealed to Kepha by Father Yahweh.
Note also the other responses that Yahshua received from the question that he asked his students (disciples) concerning who men said that he is. In none of their responses will you find them saying 'Some say that you are “God” or “a god”.' If anyone at that time believed that Yahshua was “God” or “a god”, they surely would have mentioned something so outlandish as this, but they did not. I can only conclude from by observance of what is recorded in the so-called “New Testament” that no one at that time believed that Yahshua was “God” or “a god” and that we are to believe that Yahshua is the Messiah the son of the living Yahweh and that it was He Who had raised him from death and the grave.
Fvery good ,I can say that this is likely true ,
thank you ,for a clear and understandable quote,
April 26, 2012 at 9:51 pm#295184NickHassan
ParticipantHi Frank,
Yes the Word that revealed truth to Peter is the Rock
Thus it aligns with mt 7.24 f etcApril 26, 2012 at 10:08 pm#295187Frank4YAHWEH
ParticipantQuote (jammin @ April 26 2012,19:48) 14και ο λογος σαρξ εγενετο και εσκηνωσεν εν ημιν και εθεασαμεθα την δοξαν αυτου δοξαν ως μονογενους παρα πατρος πληρης χαριτος και αληθειας 15ιωαννης μαρτυρει περι αυτου και κεκραγεν λεγων ουτος ην ον ειπον ο οπισω μου ερχομενος εμπροσθεν μου γεγονεν οτι πρωτος μου ην
16και εκ του πληρωματος αυτου ημεις παντες ελαβομεν και χαριν αντι χαριτος
17οτι ο νομος δια μωσεως εδοθη η χαρις και η αληθεια δια ιησου χριστου εγενετο
18θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε ο μονογενης υιος ο ων εις τον κολπον του πατρος εκεινος εξηγησατο
what did john said?
did he say that the word is the
1. Holy spirit
2. son of GODpls choose your answer
jammit,When are you going to finally come to the simple realization that Father Yahweh's word is just that, His word. Father Yahweh's word that is given reference to in the first verse of the so-called “Gospel of John” is not in reference to a separate being that existed with Him in the beginning, but is simply in reference to Father Yahweh's word that is said to be with Him and that has might, strength, power, and authority. If one were to etymologically trace the words 'god' and 'theos' back to the original Hebrew meaning, they would find that it leads to the Hebrew root word 'yl or wl' which simply means might, strength or power (authority):
'yl, (the original 'yl i.e. alef, yod, lamed) meaning: strength, power and might [“strength, power” – The New Brown-Driver-Briggs-Gesenius Hebrew-English Lexicon p.43a
It is commonly thought that the term derived from a root yl or wl, meaning “to be powerful” – Encyclopedia Judaica, God, names of, EL
#410-el from #352-'yl” – Strong's Hebrew Dictionary
April 26, 2012 at 10:26 pm#295190NickHassan
ParticipantHi Frank,
Those that are of the Spirit are LIVING STONES [1Peter 2.4]
They form a building that is a temple for God as Spirit.[eph 2.19-22]April 26, 2012 at 10:30 pm#295191NickHassan
ParticipantHi Frank,
And this lastly becomes the New Jerusalem including the prophets.[Rev 21.10f]April 26, 2012 at 11:14 pm#295194
mikeboll64BlockedQuote (mikeboll64 @ April 26 2012,13:00) Frank, We are of the opinion that if the PERSON Jesus is called by the name “the Word of God” in Rev 19:13, then there is no reason the PERSON Jesus isn't called by that same name in John, 1 John, and Luke.
There is much context to confirm that it is the PERSON Jesus who is called by that name in these books, while there is nothing to discredit this understanding.
Frank, since you know it is Jesus who is referred to by this title in Rev 19:13, why do you have such a hard time believing it is also Jesus who is referred to by this title in these other scriptures?
Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ April 25 2012,20:10) It is only in Revelation that it is made known that Yahshua's name/title is called “The Word of Yahweh”.
I agree that Jesus referred to by the title “the Word of God” in Revelation 19:13.Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ April 25 2012,20:10) He is referred to as such because it is his and our Father Yahweh's word that proceeds from his mouth and it is he who is the spokesman of his and our Father Yahweh's word in this last time period as Hebrews 1:1-2 makes perfectly clear.
Exactly! He is referred to as “the Word of God” because he spoke the words of God to the people in this last time period.Frank, WHEN did Jesus speak the words of God to the people? Was it only AFTER he ascended to where he was before? Or did he do most of his speaking of the word of God while he was on earth as a human prophet of God?
If you answer truthfully and scripturally, you'll agree that Jesus did the vast majority of his speaking as a human being on earth. And if that is WHEN he was doing most of his work as God's spokesman, then doesn't it make sense that the title “the Word of God” applied to him at this time?
So when John tells us that the Word of God became flesh and dwelled among us with the glory of God's only begotten, why wouldn't John be talking about that same spokesman of God who is called by the title “the Word of God” in Rev 19:13?
One other thing: You are the one who mentioned Heb 1:1-2, right? Did you overlook the fact that the Son through whom God spoke to us in these last days is the very same Son through whom God made the universe (ages)?
April 26, 2012 at 11:56 pm#295199NickHassan
ParticipantHi MB,
Yes Jesus is a human being.
Yes he was the vessel God used for speaking through.April 27, 2012 at 12:39 am#295201Frank4YAHWEH
ParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ April 27 2012,10:14) Quote (mikeboll64 @ April 26 2012,13:00) Frank, We are of the opinion that if the PERSON Jesus is called by the name “the Word of God” in Rev 19:13, then there is no reason the PERSON Jesus isn't called by that same name in John, 1 John, and Luke.
There is much context to confirm that it is the PERSON Jesus who is called by that name in these books, while there is nothing to discredit this understanding.
Frank, since you know it is Jesus who is referred to by this title in Rev 19:13, why do you have such a hard time believing it is also Jesus who is referred to by this title in these other scriptures?
Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ April 25 2012,20:10) It is only in Revelation that it is made known that Yahshua's name/title is called “The Word of Yahweh”.
I agree that Jesus referred to by the title “the Word of God” in Revelation 19:13.Quote (Frank4YAHWEH @ April 25 2012,20:10) He is referred to as such because it is his and our Father Yahweh's word that proceeds from his mouth and it is he who is the spokesman of his and our Father Yahweh's word in this last time period as Hebrews 1:1-2 makes perfectly clear.
Exactly! He is referred to as “the Word of God” because he spoke the words of God to the people in this last time period.Frank, WHEN did Jesus speak the words of God to the people? Was it only AFTER he ascended to where he was before? Or did he do most of his speaking of the word of God while he was on earth as a human prophet of God?
If you answer truthfully and scripturally, you'll agree that Jesus did the vast majority of his speaking as a human being on earth. And if that is WHEN he was doing most of his work as God's spokesman, then doesn't it make sense that the title “the Word of God” applied to him at this time?
So when John tells us that the Word of God became flesh and dwelled among us with the glory of God's only begotten, why wouldn't John be talking about that same spokesman of God who is called by the title “the Word of God” in Rev 19:13?
One other thing: You are the one who mentioned Heb 1:1-2, right? Did you overlook the fact that the Son through whom God spoke to us in these last days is the very same Son through whom God made the universe (ages)?
Mike,Yahshua was not a spokesman of Father Yahweh's word in the beginning, since he did not exist and was not “begotten” back then as you erroneously believe. Yahshua also did not empty himself of being “a god” that existed with his and our Father Yahweh in the beginning as you erroneously believe.
Yahweh, Who at many times and IN VARIOUS MANNERS spoke IN TIME PAST unto the fathers BY THE PROPHETS, Has in THIS LAST TIME PERIOD spoken unto us by His son, whom he has appointed heir of all things and BECAUSE OF whom also He made the worlds; … (Hebrews 1:1-2).
ELOHIM: ONE, OR MORE THAN ONE?
Exodus 32
By Voy Wilks
3/9/98The Hebrew word elohim, even though a plural, is in most places treated as a singular when referring to the one and only Yahweh, indicated by singular pronouns which accompany Elohim; I, me, mine, he, him, his, etc. Sometimes elohim appears in Scriptures even when referring to one pagan god (idol). This is made clear in Exodus chapter 32.
The Israelites said to Aaron, “Up, make us gods which shall go before us, …” Ex. 32:1, KJV). So Aaron fashioned a golden calf and the Israelites said, “”These be thy gods, O Israel, which brought thee up out of the land of Egypt!” (Ex. 32:4,8, KJV).
Gods (Ex. 32:1,4,8) comes from the word elohim, of course, If read only casually, these verses would seem to indicate more than one god, or idol, had been made. But notice the remaining words in this bit of history:
0 Aaron fashioned it (the elohim) with a tool (Ex. 32:4).
0 Aaron built an altar for it {not them} (Ex. 32:5).
0 For they have made a molten calf {only one calf} (Ex. 32:8).
0 And have worshiped it (singular, Ex. 32:8).
0 Moses entered the camp and saw the calf (only one calf, Ex. 32:19).
0 Moses destroyed the calf (singular, not calves, plural, Ex. 32:20).
0 There came out this calf (singular, Ex. 32:24).
0 Yahweh plagued the people because they made the calf (singular, Ex. 32:35).
0 Yea, when they had made them a molten calf, and said, “This is thy god [elohim] that brought thee up out
of Egypt …” (Neh. 9:18.0 They made a calf [only one calf] in Horeb, and worshiped the molten image” (only one image, Ps. 106:19).
0 They made a calf (only one calf) in those days (Acts 7:41).
Several times the word elohim appears in these verses, More than a dozen times, words are employed which indicate clearly that elohim can be used as singular as well as a plural. This also come through clearly in another quotation from Moses, as follows:
“And I looked, and, behold, ye … had made you a molten calf: … And I took your sin, the molten calf which ye made, and burnt it with fire, and stamped it, and ground it very small, until it was small as dust …” (Duet. 9:12,16,21).
Only one god (elohim), and only one calf; the golden calf.
Note: The word “these” in the phrase, “these be thy gods” (Ex. 32:4,8), can also be translated “this,” as indicated in Neh. 9:18, and in Strong's Concordance. Obviously, Ex. 32:4 should have been translated, “This is the god who brought you up out of the land of Egypt.” On another occasion, a single calf (one calf) was referred to as elohim:
“I have spurned your calf O Samaria. … A workman made it; it *is not god [elohim]. The calf of Samaria shall be broken to pieces” (Hosea 8:5,6).
* Webmaster's Note: The word “god [elohim]” in the above verse is not in reference to Yahweh as “Elohim”, but is in reference to an idol god [elohim] with no power, strength or might and can also be translated as follows:
“… A workman made it; it has no power [strength, might] whatsoever.”
End Webmaster's Note
Moses An Elohim To Aaron And Pharaoh
But Moses said to Yahweh, Oh my Yahweh, I am not eloquent, … Then … Yahweh … said, “Is there not Aaron your brother, the Levite? … He shall speak for you to the people; and he shall be a mouth for you, and you [Moses] shall be to him as *god [elohim]” (Ex. 4:10-16).
And Yahweh said to Moses, “See, I make you as *god [elohim] to Pharaoh; …” (Ex. 7:1).
* Webmaster's Note: The above two verses can also be translated in the following manner:
“… and you [Moses] shall be to him as *one with power [authority]” (Ex. 4:10-16).
… “See, I make you as *one with power [authority] to Pharaoh; … (Ex. 7:1).
Moses as a spokesman for Yahweh communicated to Aaron what Yahweh had communicated to him. Aaron in turn acted as a spokesman for Moses in communicating
to Pharaoh what Yahweh had said to Moses, since Aaron was more eloquent in speaking than Moses.End Webmaster's Note
From these Scriptures we see that Moses became an elohim to Pharaoh and to his brother Aaron. Question: What was the numerical value of Moses? Did he consist of one, two or three persons? All must agree; there was only one Moses. Nevertheless, the ONE man, Moses, was elohim (plural, indicating authority and majesty). Again, there was only one Moses, not two or three.
Chemosh An Elohim
“Will you not possess what Chemosh your elohim gives you to possess?” (Judges 11:24).
Chemosh (singular) was an elohim.
Dagon An Elohim
The second time Dagon fell over, his head and hands were broken off, putting fear into the Philistines (1 Sam. 5:1-6). Notice in the next verse the use of the word elohim (plural), even though there was only one statue. The men of Ashdod said,
“The ark of Elohim must not remain with us; for his hand is heavy upon us, and upon Dagon our elohim” (1 Sam. 5:7, RSV).
Ashtoreth, Chemosh & Milcom
“… because he [Israel] has forsaken me and worshiped Ashtoreth the goddess [elohim] of the Sidonians, Chemosh the god (elohim), of Moab, and Milcom the god [elohim] of the Ammorites, and have not walked in My ways …” (1 Kings 11:33).
IN THE MAJORITY OF CASES, ELOHIM EQUALS ONLY ONE
The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia
Eerdman's Publishing Company, Volume Two, 1984, Page 1254
“One of the oldest and most widely distributed terms for deity known to the human race is el, with its derivations 'Elim, 'Elohim, and Eloah. Like theos, Deus and God, it is a generic term, including every member of the class deity. It may even denote a position of honor and authority among men. … It is, therefore, a general term expressing majesty and authority, … By far the most frequent form used by O. T. writers is the plural, 'Elohim, but they use it regularly with singular verbs and adjectives to denote a singular idea. Several explanations have been offered of this usage of a plural term to denote a singular idea – it expresses the fullness and manifoldness of the divine nature, or that it is a plural of majesty used in the manner of royal persons, …” (Some of the emphasis was added by Voy).
The New Bible Dictionary
Eerdman's Publishing Company, 1979, Page 478
“Elohim: Though a plural form, Elohim can be treated as a singular, in which case it means the one supreme deity, …”
Theological Word Book of the Old Testament
By Harris, Archer & Waltke, Volume One, 1980, page 44
“'Elohim. God gods, judges, angels. … This word, which is generally viewed as the plural of eloah,' is found more frequently in Scripture than either 'el' or 'eloah' for the true God. The plural ending is usually described as a plural of majesty and not intended as a true plural of God. This is seen in the fact that the noun 'elohim' is consistently used with singular verb forms and with adjectives and pronouns in the singular.”
Footnote in the Emphasized Bible – Genesis 1:1
By J. B. Rotherham, 1897
“Hebrew: 'elohim. “Probably a plural of quality = 'God-head, ' as our 'Lordship' = Lord (Davies, H.L.. p 9). It should be carefully observed, that although 'elohim is plural in form, yet when, as here, it is construed with a verb in the singular, it is naturally singular in sense, especially since the 'plural of quality' or 'excellence' abounds in Hebrew in cases where the reference is undeniably to something that which must be understood in the singular number.”
The Zondervan Pictorial Bible Dictionary
Zondervan Publishing House, 1982, Page 248
“Elohim, the most frequent Hebrew word for God (over 2,500 times in the O. T.). Elohim is plural in form, but is singular in construction (used with singular verbs and adjectives). When applied to the one true God, the plural is due to the Hebrew idiom of a plural of magnitude or majesty.”
In the majority of cases, the word elohim is used in Scriptures as a singular term. There is only ONE (one) Yahweh, not two, three, or a dozen. There is no Trinity. There is no Twinity. There is no duality. Instead, there is only ONE and only one true Deity. That one true Deity is Yahweh, just as Yahshua reported:
And one of the scribes … asked him, “What commandment is first of all?” Yahshua answered, “The first is, “Here O Israel: Yahweh our Elohim, Yahweh is ONE; …” (Mark 12:28-30; quoted from Deut. 6:4).
From these Scriptures we see that it is not optional. We are commanded to believe that Yahweh is ONE (O-N-E), not two or three.
“And this is eternal life, that we know thee the only true El, and Yahshua Messiah whom thou has sent” (John 17:3).
Scriptures reveal that elohim can be correctly used in referring to one, or to more than one object or person. Since many Scriptures proclaim there is only one Yahweh, then we can be sure the phrase, Yahweh the Elohim of Israel” refers to only one person, one being, one El, one Deity. There is no other (Neh. 9:6; Isa. 43:10-13; 44:6; 45:18,22; John 17:3).
“To you [Israel] it was shown, that you might know that Yahweh is Elohim; there is no other besides him [not them or us]. Out of heaven he let you here his voice … know therefore this day, and lay it to your heart, that Yahweh is Elohim in heaven above and on the earth beneath; there is no other” (Deut. 4:35-39, RSV).
The Books of Deuteronomy and Psalms confirm that the title Elohim is sometimes used as a singular noun:
“For Yahweh your God (El) is God (Elohim) of gods (elohim) and Lord of lords, the great, the mighty, and the terrible God (El), …” (Deut. 10:17, RSV).
“Oh give thanks to the God (Elohim) of gods (elohim), for his steadfast love endures forever” (Ps. 136:2, RSV).
The one Yahweh is the Elohim (singular) of elohim (plural); the GOD of gods. Te ONE Yahweh, this ONE Elohim, is referred to 36 times throughout Psalm 136 by singular pronouns; HE, HIS, and HIM, indicating one person.
We see then, elohim, even thou technically a plural, often refers to the ONE Yahweh, the ONE true El.
Conclusion
The evidence is conclusive: The word elohim is sometimes singular. This is certainly true when referring to Yahweh (Deut 6:4,5; Mark 12:28-30). There is only ONE (one) Yahweh, not two, three, or a dozen.
For further study, see “Elohim: Singular Or Plural?” Other free literature is available from:
Assembly of Yahweh (7th Day)
Box 509, Cisco, TX 76437Also see:
LET US MAKE MAN IN OUR IMAGE
http://frank4yahweh.xanga.com/758082821/let-us-make-man-in-our-imageRelated Articles
[PDF] Elohim – Plural Or Singular? Hebrew Word Study
http://www.amarthenazarene.com/uploads….lar.pdf[PDF] Plural Hebrew Words Used As Singular Words
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